. Do you all think that writing things like "mute point" or "persay" (per se) could be due to dyslexia or just being a bad speller if they happen over and over?
I think this most certainly is a result of less reading. Things like this come from hearing and knowing the meaning of certain catch phrases from conversational use, however never ever having read them, or very seldom anyway, one might not commit them to memory as almost sight words.
If they are spelling them according to phonics they probably possess decent spelling ability, but in addition to not having seen them in print too often, they are also not digging into the 'where did that phrase come from, anyway?' to make a deeper link with why it is spelled moot rather than mute. If I make a mute point, I am not making much of anything, am I?
(Musings about the why and 'from whence' of language might be a gt tendency that just doesn't rear it's head in the nd mind too often, not sure on that one.)
