Originally Posted by Dude
Originally Posted by Bostonian
Originally Posted by Dude
Charles Murray classified his highest IQ group as 125+, so for the twelfth time, he has nothing to say about the highly gifted.
According to research cited in the thread Genetics and intelligence differences
Quote
high intelligence is familial, heritable, and caused by the same genetic and environmental factors responsible for the normal distribution of intelligence.
so what is true of the demographics of the 125+ IQ population is true of the 145+ IQ population, only more so.

Yes, the links between parent IQ and child IQ are well established. Charles Murray is attempting to link IQ to financial outcomes. Those are not the same things.

He knows that, but a correlation between two variables can be significant and still be well less than 1.0 (which occurs if they are "the same things"). Wikipedia says this http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intelligence_quotient#Income:

Quote
On pg 568 of The g Factor, Arthur Jensen claims that although the correlation between IQ and income averages a moderate 0.4 (one sixth or 16% of the variance), the relationship increases with age, and peaks at middle age when people have reached their maximum career potential. In the book, A Question of Intelligence, Daniel Seligman cites an IQ income correlation of 0.5 (25% of the variance).
Do you think the correlation between IQ and income is well less than 0.4-0.5 in the U.S.?