Yes, I understand that the top 2.28 percent is 130+ on both, but why the argument for lowering to 120? I've been reading about the new tests and some proposed recommendations, but I don't understand what their reasons are. I agree with you. Percentages are percentages, regardless of the test. Unless someone can argue that the distribution is not normal or that the mean and sd are not as reported, then I don't think they have a case.