No, it’s actually the same conversation, because you are creating an artificial line between whether the cost of your husbands education was incurred at the undergraduate or the graduate level and whether the education happened to be free at the point of delivery for your husband.
Whether he came out of the undergaduate part debt free or not, *somebody* paid for those two years worth of general ed. Your husbands parents, other students parents, tax payers, endowment donors. It wasn’t free, the costs just have been shifted. And don’t forget to opportunity costs - how much money does your husband make, on average, within a year of his professional life, times two?
If the cost for two years of general ed, delivered at huge cost at sleep away college by PhD carrying lecturers (as opposed to high school, as per the educational model of most other countries in the world) were not incurred in the first place, there would be no need to shift it around.
It doesn’t mean that you don’t still need 6 years of targeted medical education, with 4 years of clinicals and stuff, after the premed stage. It will be expensive anywhere and it doesn’t matter whether the institution that delivers say, year 3 and 4, happens to be called college or med school. But you basically shave off 25% of the cost of education the most highly paid staff in the system. It must make a difference somewhere - where, that’s up to the system.
Last edited by Tigerle; 04/26/18 11:13 AM.
