Originally Posted by Old Dad
Originally Posted by Bostonian
I think it was off-topic, but presumably the point being raised is whether the presence of morally objectionable passages in a book (or more broadly, teachings in a religion) means that the religion or its book have nothing to say to us.

Thank you for your interpretation Bostonian.
I think a couple of points important to realize here...

My prior post started with the following sentence...
(quote)
"If one takes stock in the Bible, perhaps using it to educate their children.....
(End quote)

I realize not all believe the Bible to be God's word or even that God exists, the post was written for those who do as evidenced by my opening statement.

Secondly, the passage quoted (Exodus 21:7) should be read in context with understanding of the events surrounding it's speaking and also understanding that slavery of the time was not slavery as we frequently refer to it in modern day. Slavery of the time was most often closer to an endentured servant.

If one feels that religion has nothing important to say to us about morality, they'd probably best understand that the basis of the majority of laws in modern society are taken from Judeo-Christian laws.
I agree this post and passages are apt.

In considering Bostonian's point, most modern day contracts contain a severability clause. Some may say a similar thought may apply to ancient texts: if part does not stand or is no longer applicable, the entire work is not negated.

There are many theories of personal finance, and it may be beneficial to be familiar with a wide variety of views on the subject.