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    Joined: Jul 2011
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    Originally Posted by ultramarina
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    "Gender inequalities" mostly result from differing interests and aptitudes of males and females,

    So right NOW, at this moment, would you say we're at the point where ALL differences in apparent male/female "interests and aptitudes" are 100% biologically based? Why is NOW that moment? Why weren't we at that moment, say, 20 years ago, when that "58 percent of all bachelor's, master's, and doctoral degrees in biology going to women" you cite below was a MUCH lower number?

    This is such a silly argument. No offense, Bostonian, but it's just silly. I love how we keep moving the goalposts, too. Oh...er...it looks like a lot of women are majoring in biology now! Well, um, I guess we might need to retire that whole "The womenz, they cannot do the scienz" trope. Wait, wait! "Teh womenz, they cannot do teh ENGINEERINZ!"

    I see a large number of problems with your post. First of all, you misrepresent what Bostonian has stated as something easier for you to argue against. You substitute "100% biological" for "mostly the result of differing interests and aptitudes".

    Secondly, you don't in any way address how much of the discrepancy you believe could be explained by biology, although you seem certain that it's less than 100%, and thus your straw-man of Bostonian's position must be wrong. Are you open to the idea that bias explains less than 100% of the discrepancy? If not, why?

    Then you go on to mock Bostonian's position (or rather, your straw-man of it, I suppose) and deride some unspecified group of people for their failure to extrapolate a more equal aptitude between the sexes in engineering from the increased number of women studying biology. Maybe that extrapolation is right, maybe it's not, but it doesn't logically follow, as engineering is not biology.

    Still, there is, I believe, a certain amount of wisdom in your post. The question of how we know when society as a whole is operating without bias is a good one. For some people the answer is as easy as looking at the statistics. If certain groups of people are over or under represented in a field or position, then that constitutes direct evidence of bias. For others, the question is much more complicated.

    Perhaps levels of interest and aptitude differ between groups, but the differences have been exaggerated by bias. Perhaps bias is being applied to counter natural differences. Unless we can estimate what the bias-free results should be, either belief is equally silly, right?

    But what if estimating bias-free results is simply too complicated? Where does that leave us? Are we to jump to the conclusion that that bias-free results would be equality, and anything differing from that ought to be criminal? Or do we criminalize only acts of discrimination for which we have evidence outside of mere statistics?

    And what do we tell our children? I suppose many people will make their own estimates for what they believe the bias-free results would be (with differing amounts of supporting data), and work from there. Some of these people will accuse those starting with a different estimate as operating with a nefarious bias.

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    Originally Posted by La Texican
    During the course of this thread I read my son a Curious George Haloween Party book. In one picture Betty was dressed up as an astronaut. Wyatt said Billy should have been the astronaut because, "girls can't be astronauts, only boys can be astronauts". I said some girls have been astronauts. He said then why haven't I ever seen them? Granted i've only taught him skills not content so he's talking about whatever he's seen in his four years of pop culture.

    They only know what they've seen. Of course they become biased. DD has never seen a female US president and is adamant that the highest office a woman can attain is the first lady's. This especially makes sense when you visualize the setup of one of her favorite museums. In one grand exhibit, great men like George Washington and Abraham Lincoln stand tall surrounded by their artifacts of great power. In the next room over are the dresses worn by the first ladies.

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    Originally Posted by Dude
    Socio-evolutionary explanations often come off as ad hoc rationalizations anyway. Where's the causal link? Isn't adaptability supposed to be a key strength of the human species?

    Actually, they can be tested just like any other hypotheses. There are many examples of species changing behavior and even progenys' physical attributes in response to social stimuli. One of the best known is the change in locusts from sedentary individuals to mass migrating clouds.

    Originally Posted by Dude
    Useful and practical information and devices for the prevention of unwanted pregnancy dates back at least to 1850 BC (Kahun Papyrus),

    Infanticide and war/executions were the two main means of birth control throughout history. Birth control is one of those "socio-evolutionary" practices that has deep roots in "survival." You can starve and die or you can kill some or all of your kids - or kill your neighbors and take their stuff. The use of infanticide among the Innuit, for example, is well documented. Scarcity in tribal societies almost always led to organized total war - and the evidence of "genocide" is deep in the paleo-archeological record across all societies.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infanticide

    Quote
    ... all because of a Victorian style moral code, which traces its roots to a medieval Europe suffering catastrophic population loss.

    Medieval Europe was nearly destroyed by a series of political crises, followed by famine due to the start of the little ice age, and then the plague. This did completely destroy the social fabric and almost wiped out the Church. "Morals" went out the window.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/A_Distant_Mirror

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crisis_of_the_Late_Middle_Ages

    Quote
    Many significant cultures recognized the sexes as equals, and had relaxed views about sexuality, even to the point of incorporating sex into their religious observances. But history is written by the victors, and that's not the information the Texas school board wants you to see.

    Which "significant" cultures are those? I can't think of any. Rearing kids imposes huge costs and task specialization is required to ensure survival.

    Everyone likes to talk about relaxed views about sex until a 300 lb jealous husband is sitting on you doing the ground and pound. Or you get a disease. Or feelings get hurt. Or a jealous wife expels another woman from the group or a "homebreaker" does the reverse - causing great discord. Or the kids get hurt.

    There is extensive, quantitative research on "socio-biology" and human social organization.

    http://personal.lse.ac.uk/sear/pdfs/who%20keeps.pdf


    Last edited by Austin; 07/11/12 08:16 AM.
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    Originally Posted by DAD22
    Perhaps levels of interest and aptitude differ between groups, but the differences have been exaggerated by bias. Perhaps bias is being applied to counter natural differences. Unless we can estimate what the bias-free results should be, either belief is equally silly, right?

    Obviously a bias-free result would be representation by equal proportion. That's simple mathematics. In a world where 52% of the population is female, any results less than 52% female involves bias of some sort.

    One bias in play is that men feel threatened by women who make more money, which encourages women to seek lower-paying jobs. STEM jobs are seen as quite lucrative.

    Another bias in play is that boys are encouraged to build, tinker, and fix things at early ages. Girls are encouraged to play with dolls.

    Another bias in play, as has been mentioned earlier, is the lack of gender role models for STEM fields. Little girls can be inspired by Jane Goodall to pursue biology. Where's the female Bill Gates or Linus Torvalds? Where were the women in the Apollo program?

    It was mentioned that girls have an aversion to math. Guess what? It's not biological, it's social: http://www.dailymail.co.uk/sciencet...-differences-caused-attitudes-women.html

    Bias, bias, everywhere.

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    Originally Posted by ellemenope
    They only know what they've seen. Of course they become biased. DD has never seen a female US president and is adamant that the highest office a woman can attain is the first lady's.

    Don't throw up your hands -- show them more. Explain that Hilary Clinton came very close to being the 2008 Democratic nominee and likely would have won the general election if nominated. I think she lost not because she was a woman but because some primary voters were turned off by her initial support of the war in Iraq and enthused about a different kind of "first". The "fragile flower" theory that women rule out careers because of mistaken beliefs they held as small children underestimates their rationality.


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    Originally Posted by Dude
    Obviously a bias-free result would be representation by equal proportion. That's simple mathematics. In a world where 52% of the population is female, any results less than 52% female involves bias of some sort.
    That's an absurd argument, but if we accept it, does the fact that 57% of college students are female (citation below) prove that the educational system is biased against men? Is it biased in favor of Asians, who make up less than 5% of the population but are "over-represented" at elite colleges?

    http://www.nytimes.com/2010/02/07/fashion/07campus.html
    The New Math on Campus
    By ALEX WILLIAMS
    New York Times
    February 5, 2010


    "To see what is in front of one's nose needs a constant struggle." - George Orwell
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    Quote
    Are you open to the idea that bias explains less than 100% of the discrepancy? If not, why?

    Yes, I'm open to it. But I truly do not think we're at the point yet where we can say, well, hey, we've absolutely done ALL we can, nothing is changing anymore, and now we can pronounce that any remaning differences are biological. Girls' and women's performance on math and science measures is in RAPID flux and is NOT by any means internationally consistent (look at the study Dude posted above), as we might expect if we were looking at a biologically constant issue. Their educational choices WRT the degrees they choose to pursue are also changing rapidly. There have been HUGE changes in 20 years. 20 years!! That is NOTHING. Absolutely and completely meaningless in evolutionary time.

    Look at how fast our society is evolving. It's incredible. Our own parents would likely have laughed their heads off at the idea of a serious female contender for president. Let's continue to give it time and to give our young girls opportunity. The good news is that I think they're going to take it anyway, regardless of people who are still wandering around telling them they aren't interested in engineering due to their vaginas. (My own DD won the "build the tallest thing out of these materials in X amount of time" contest at her school's engineering night last year.)

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    Whoah, fallacy barrage.

    Originally Posted by Austin
    Actually, they can be tested just like any other hypotheses. There are many examples of species changing behavior and even progenys' physical attributes in response to social stimuli. One of the best known is the change in locusts from sedentary individuals to mass migrating clouds.

    Poor analogy.

    Originally Posted by Austin
    Infanticide and war/executions were the two main means of birth control throughout history. Birth control is one of those "socio-evolutionary" practices that has deep roots in "survival." You can starve and die or you can kill some or all of your kids - or kill your neighbors and take their stuff. The use of infanticide among the Innuit, for example, is well documented. Scarcity in tribal societies almost always led to organized total war - and the evidence of "genocide" is deep in the paleo-archeological record across all societies.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infanticide

    Red herring. The topic is family planning.

    Here's this might help you get back on topic: http://www.uic.edu/classes/osci/osci590/13_2%20Birth%20Control%20in%20Antiquity.htm

    Originally Posted by Austin
    Medieval Europe was nearly destroyed by a series of political crises, followed by famine due to the start of the little ice age, and then the plague. This did completely destroy the social fabric and almost wiped out the Church. "Morals" went out the window.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/A_Distant_Mirror

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crisis_of_the_Late_Middle_Ages

    And this would explain why I didn't call them medieval morals, I called them Victorian morals, so straw man.

    Originally Posted by Austin
    Which "significant" cultures are those? I can't think of any.

    Argument from ignorance.

    Just off the top of my head, the Five Nations have been thoroughly trashed by US history, so I doubt you'd consider them significant (and any qualified historian would strongly disagree), so how about Rome?

    http://www.womenintheancientworld.com/legal%20status%20of%20women%20in%20ancient%20rome.htm

    And here is some basic information about the historic links between sex and religion: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Temple_prostitutes

    Originally Posted by Austin
    Rearing kids imposes huge costs and task specialization is required to ensure survival.

    Argument by assertion, and one which clearly holds no water in our society at that.

    Originally Posted by Austin
    Everyone likes to talk about relaxed views about sex until a 300 lb jealous husband is sitting on you doing the ground and pound. Or you get a disease. Or feelings get hurt. Or a jealous wife expels another woman from the group or a "homebreaker" does the reverse - causing great discord. Or the kids get hurt.

    Red herring again. I offered no argument about current Western culture's attitudes towards sex.

    Originally Posted by Austin
    There is extensive, quantitative research on "socio-biology" and human social organization.

    http://personal.lse.ac.uk/sear/pdfs/who%20keeps.pdf

    Red herring. Research on how modern societies organize themselves tells us nothing of past societies, especially given the significant amount of homogeneity in the modern world.

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    Originally Posted by Bostonian
    That's an absurd argument, but if we accept it, does the fact that 57% of college students are female (citation below) prove that the educational system is biased against men? Is it biased in favor of Asians, who make up less than 5% of the population but are "over-represented" at elite colleges?

    No. It shows that biases exist, but it doesn't show that the educational system is necessarily at fault.

    For instance, we know that Asians are "over-represented" because they place a premium on advanced education that other cultural groups do not, so they are self-selecting for college. Also, US colleges are taking on a large number of non-resident Asian students, so those numbers need to be considered apart from those drawn from the resident population.

    Boys have attractive options for advancement outside of college, most significantly in the armed forces, where strong biases exist to attract boys and repel girls.

    Both of these examples of bias influence college numbers without implicating colleges in any way.

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    Originally Posted by ultramarina
    Quote
    Are you open to the idea that bias explains less than 100% of the discrepancy? If not, why?

    Yes, I'm open to it. But I truly do not think we're at the point yet where we can say, well, hey, we've absolutely done ALL we can, nothing is changing anymore, and now we can pronounce that any remaning differences are biological.

    All we "can" do and all we "should" do are two entirely different questions, and depending on your perspective, neither necessarily has anything to do with biological differences. Assuming there is a natural difference in mean or variance of mathematical ability between the sexes, can we apply bias to lessen those differences? Sure. Should we? That's opinion.


    Originally Posted by ultramarina
    Girls' and women's performance on math and science measures is in RAPID flux and is NOT by any means internationally consistent (look at the study Dude posted above), as we might expect if we were looking at a biologically constant issue.

    Just because there is flux, doesn't necessarily mean we are approaching the natural, unbiased result. We may be have been moving away from it the whole time, or we may have started out moving toward it, but overshot it. Also, international consistency doesn't necessarily tell us anything about biology. I can think of numerous genetic traits that vary both in mean and variance across populations. Is anyone going to argue that eye pigmentation is not biological, since it varies in mean and variance internationally?

    I read the study that was the basis of the link Dude provided. I found it less than a convincing debunking of higher male variance in mathematical ability. They actually go so far as to plot a histogram of international gender Variance Ratios (VR) that peaks at 1.16, with an inter-country variance of only 0.0054 (I calculated myself from the data. The authors claim a "large" variance without actually stating it.), and go on to argue that the natural variance ratio is 1.0, and the explanation for anything else is bias. The amusing thing is that they implicate bias in exaggerating the natural variance ratio in just about every country tested, and refuse to accept that bias could possibly diminish this ratio in the handful of countries that show a smaller ratio (which could also be caused by sampling error). Of course, they also discount the idea that different countries with different populations could have different biological variance ratios. In effect, they assume that many groups of humans are genetically similar in order to (attempt to) disprove that 2 groups of humans are genetically different.

    Additionally, the study was based on knowledge tests rather than ability tests like IQ, and they make the annoyingly ubiquitous mistake of portraying correlation as causation:

    Quote
    maternal education and employment opportunities likely having indirect effects on learning by their offspring regardless of gender

    I'm not denying it as a possibility... but I can think of numerous other possible explanations that have not been controlled for.


    Originally Posted by ultramarina
    Their educational choices WRT the degrees they choose to pursue are also changing rapidly. There have been HUGE changes in 20 years. 20 years!! That is NOTHING. Absolutely and completely meaningless in evolutionary time.

    No argument here.


    Originally Posted by ultramarina
    Look at how fast our society is evolving. It's incredible. Our own parents would likely have laughed their heads off at the idea of a serious female contender for president. Let's continue to give it time and to give our young girls opportunity.

    Is anyone arguing that we not give young girls opportunities? I hope we are giving all of our children opportunities to learn and perform, regardless of gender.


    Originally Posted by ultramarina
    The good news is that I think they're going to take it anyway, regardless of people who are still wandering around telling them they aren't interested in engineering due to their vaginas. (My own DD won the "build the tallest thing out of these materials in X amount of time" contest at her school's engineering night last year.)

    Congratulations to your DD. My DD is only three, but if you ask her what she wants to be when she grows up she'll answer either an engineer, or a teddy bear, depending on her mood. As far as I can tell, she has the aptitude for it (engineering, not being a teddy bear... if teddy bears are expected to hug strangers or family members who only visit on occasion then she has little aptitude for that).

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